A certain jar contains only b black marbles, w white marbles and r red marbles. If one marble is to...
GMAT Data Sufficiency : (DS) Questions
A certain jar contains only b black marbles, w white marbles and r red marbles. If one marble is to be chosen at random from the jar, is the probability that the marble chosen will be red greater then the probability that the marble chosen will be white?
- \(\frac{\mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{b}+\mathrm{w}} > \frac{\mathrm{w}}{\mathrm{b}+\mathrm{r}}\)
- \(\mathrm{b}-\mathrm{w} > \mathrm{r}\)
Understanding the Question
We need to determine: Is the probability of drawing a red marble greater than the probability of drawing a white marble?
Since we're randomly selecting from all marbles in the jar, the probability of getting a red marble is simply \(\frac{\mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{b+w+r}}\), and the probability of getting a white marble is \(\frac{\mathrm{w}}{\mathrm{b+w+r}}\).
Notice that these probabilities have the same denominator. So comparing \(\mathrm{P(red)} > \mathrm{P(white)}\) is equivalent to comparing their numerators: Is \(\mathrm{r} > \mathrm{w}\)?
This is a yes/no question. To be sufficient, a statement must allow us to definitively answer either "yes, \(\mathrm{r} > \mathrm{w}\)" or "no, \(\mathrm{r} ≤ \mathrm{w}\)" — not just show that one is possible.
Analyzing Statement 1
Statement 1 tells us: \(\frac{\mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{b+w}} > \frac{\mathrm{w}}{\mathrm{b+r}}\)
This compares two ratios:
- Left side: The fraction of red marbles among all non-red marbles
- Right side: The fraction of white marbles among all non-white marbles
Let's explore what this inequality reveals about r versus w.
First, let's check if r could equal w:
If \(\mathrm{r} = \mathrm{w}\), then both fractions would have identical numerators. Since \(\mathrm{b+w}\) and \(\mathrm{b+r}\) would both equal b plus that common value, the fractions would be equal. But Statement 1 says the left side is strictly greater, so r cannot equal w.
Now let's test which direction the inequality goes:
Test Case 1 - When \(\mathrm{r} > \mathrm{w}\):
- Let r = 10, w = 5, b = 20
- Left side: \(\frac{10}{20+5} = \frac{10}{25} = 0.4\)
- Right side: \(\frac{5}{20+10} = \frac{5}{30} ≈ 0.167\)
- Check: Is 0.4 > 0.167? ✓ YES, the inequality holds!
Test Case 2 - When \(\mathrm{r} < \mathrm{w}\):
- Let r = 5, w = 10, b = 20
- Left side: \(\frac{5}{20+10} = \frac{5}{30} ≈ 0.167\)
- Right side: \(\frac{10}{20+5} = \frac{10}{25} = 0.4\)
- Check: Is 0.167 > 0.4? ✗ NO, the inequality fails!
The key insight: Statement 1's inequality can only be satisfied when \(\mathrm{r} > \mathrm{w}\). The cross-ratio comparison forces this specific relationship.
Since Statement 1 guarantees \(\mathrm{r} > \mathrm{w}\), we can definitively answer "YES" to our question.
[STOP - Statement 1 is Sufficient!]
Statement 1 is SUFFICIENT.
This eliminates answer choices B, C, and E.
Analyzing Statement 2
Now let's forget Statement 1 completely and analyze Statement 2 independently.
Statement 2 tells us: \(\mathrm{b} - \mathrm{w} > \mathrm{r}\)
This means the excess of black marbles over white marbles is greater than the number of red marbles. We can rearrange this as: \(\mathrm{b} > \mathrm{w} + \mathrm{r}\).
But notice — this constrains the relationship between black marbles and the sum of white and red, not the relationship between r and w directly.
Let's test whether both \(\mathrm{r} > \mathrm{w}\) and \(\mathrm{r} < \mathrm{w}\) are possible:
Scenario 1 - Where \(\mathrm{r} > \mathrm{w}\):
- Let b = 20, w = 5, r = 10
- Check Statement 2: Is 20 - 5 > 10? Is 15 > 10? ✓ YES
- And indeed \(\mathrm{r} > \mathrm{w}\) (10 > 5)
Scenario 2 - Where \(\mathrm{r} < \mathrm{w}\):
- Let b = 20, w = 10, r = 5
- Check Statement 2: Is 20 - 10 > 5? Is 10 > 5? ✓ YES
- But now \(\mathrm{r} < \mathrm{w}\) (5 < 10)
Since Statement 2 is satisfied in both scenarios — one where \(\mathrm{r} > \mathrm{w}\) and another where \(\mathrm{r} < \mathrm{w}\) — we cannot determine which probability is greater.
Statement 2 is NOT SUFFICIENT.
This eliminates answer choices B and D.
The Answer: A
Statement 1 alone is sufficient because the inequality \(\frac{\mathrm{r}}{\mathrm{b+w}} > \frac{\mathrm{w}}{\mathrm{b+r}}\) can only be true when \(\mathrm{r} > \mathrm{w}\), giving us a definitive "yes" to our question.
Statement 2 alone is not sufficient because it allows both \(\mathrm{r} > \mathrm{w}\) and \(\mathrm{r} < \mathrm{w}\) scenarios.
Answer Choice A: "Statement 1 alone is sufficient, but Statement 2 alone is not sufficient."